
In a recent blog post, Christian Huls gives a litany of reasons for why he is not a
Calvinist. Ostensibly he believes that these are valid, reasonable, and Biblical
objections to Reformed Soteriology, namely Calvinism. In responding to these comments,
I hope to show that his comments do not provide any real substantive objections
to Calvinism or belief that Calvinism is the Biblical view. I should note here
however that I am not attempting to prove Calvinism is true or Biblical.
I am simply responding to his objections. This means that to defeat his
objections I merely need to show that they are either not accurate to Calvinism,
incorrectly evaluate an entailment of Calvinism, presuppose Huls own view and
thus rely on question begging, or incorrectly interpret a Biblical passage as
teaching something that Huls thinks that it does. For this last kind of
response, since Huls is often making the harder claim that Calvinism is contrary
to the Bible, in these cases, I do not even need to show that Calvinism provides
the best understanding of the passage(s) in question (though I think it
does), but rather I must merely demonstrate that there is nothing contrary
to what the Scripture teaches. That is, that there is no possible way to read
the passage in a responsible manner inline with Calvinistic theology. Due to
the fact that Huls has made the much stronger claim in these cases, it make my
job enormously easier, so I’ll thank him
in advance for trying to shoot for the stars here. Due to this, I will often
not need to make my case from the scriptures. Some will have a problem with
this, but remember, I’m not even attempting to here show that Calvinism is true
and Biblical. That’s not the burden that I bear in this series. I am not
providing a positive case for the truth of Calvinism. I am responding
to claims made against it. So Scripture will be used to cross reference points,
show inconsistencies with Huls’ own comments with other passages, etc. but
readers should not expect me to be presenting the Biblical case for Calvinism
in this project. To that end, I also readily admit that at the end of this, even
if all my rejoinders go through and every one of Huls’ objections is defeated,
this will not show that Calvinism is true or Biblical. Rather, all it will
demonstrate is that is not falsified by the kinds of objections that Huls provides.
Procedurally, I
have put Huls’ comments in bold typeface and have offset his “reasons” numerically.
My comments follow his. His article begins with a single statement that I would
like to address first. Huls writes,
I
reject Calvinism because it is riddled with contradictions, most
especially about the nature of God.
Here is the
first case where Huls radically overstates his case, even by his own arguments
that follow. Most of Mr. Huls’ own list would not even qualify as contradictions
since they do not entail that Calvinism affirms both a proposition and its
negation. A contradiction is X and ~X. It is not that X entails Y and someone
thinks Y is false. What Huls seems to mean is that Calvinism, on his view, just
contains falsehoods. We will see shortly that his objections often beg the
question, border on the trivial, redefine or equivocate on terms, proof text
without any exegetical reflection or engagement with Calvinistic exegetical
scholarship, etc. While I appreciate my discussions with Huls and consider him
to be a brother and commend his zealous defense of the Word, in this case, his
own theological presuppositions have led him to some rather superficial and
myopic engagements with Reformed thought and theology in how we understand what
the Bible teaches.
Now, let us proceed
to the first five reasons that he gives.
1. Calvinism
makes God partial in arbitrarily selecting some for salvation and not others,
when Scripture says that there is NO partiality with God (Deuteronomy 10:17; 2Chronicles
19:7; Job 34:19; Matthew 22:16; Mark 12:14; Luke 20:21; Acts 10:34; Romans
2:11; Galatians 2:6; 1Peter 1:17).
“Arbitrary” is
a word with various uses. IF we mean it in the sense that it is done based on
the choice of one person rather than due to a law dictating something, then sure.
In that sense of the term, election is arbitrary. God chose it and it
was not the necessary outcome of some law imposed upon him.
However, this
is clearly not how the objection means the term since even on most
non-Calvinist views God is not bound by laws external to himself and they do
not think that God acting for his purposes apart of laws is a bad thing. So
this objection that somehow the supposed arbitrariness of God in election given
Calvinism would be a bad thing, cannot mean such an innocuous sense of the
term.
They clearly
mean it in the more common usage of the term that for something to be arbitrary
is for it to be random or on a whim, rather than for any reason. However,
if that is the way the objection must use the term, then it fails to be an
objection that works against Calvinism. On Calvinism, election is unconditional
in the sense that it is not based on a character or action that we do – it is
not because we are rich or poor, Jew or gentile, slave or free, man or woman,
strong or weak, smart or…. not. However, that does not mean that God does not
have reasons for his selection for his own purposes (as we are told in Eph. 1:5;
1:11). The Calvinist view is not some kind of random cosmic lottery or dart
board. That just is not our view. It merely means that God’s election of individuals
is not conditioned by anything that they will or work (Rom. 9:14).
This means that
in a banal sense election would be arbitrary, but in such a way that it would
be unobjectionable even to non-Calvinists like Huls. Yet it would not be
arbitrary in the sense that the criticism means the term.
2. Calvinism
makes God inequitable in irresistibly saving some, and not the rest, when God
says that He established equity (Psalm 99:4), “delights in uprightness/equity”
(1Chronicles 29:17), and “will judge the world… with uprightness/equity” (Psalm
9:8; 75:2; 96:10; 98:9; see also Psalm 17:2; Isaiah 45:19). Note that the Hebrew word for “uprightness/equity”
is מֵישָׁרִים (MYShaRIM), which means “level, order, or fairness.” Isaiah even
says that “the way of the righteous IS equity,” and then he prays and asks God
to make the path of the righteous LEVEL (or equal)” (Isaiah 26:7).
This objection
is found in the pages of Scripture! I really like when this happens because if
we all agree that the Scripture is our authority on these issues, then we
should believe it when it expressly says something right? So where is this
found? In Romans 9, after Paul says that God chose Jacob over Esau before “the
twins were not yet born and had not done anything good or bad, so that God’s
purpose according to His choice would stand, not because of works but because
of Him who calls…” Paul repeats in FOUR ways that it had nothing to do with
the twins or their actions or choices. God chose Jacob:
a)
before they were born
b)
before they had done good or bad
c)
so it would be God’s purpose according to his choice / because it is his choice
to call
d)
NOT because of their actions
What does Paul
say next? Well, he anticipates and objection from his reader to the idea that
God’s election is based on his purposes alone and not based on anything we will
or work or want. And what is that objection? It is the exact objection that Huls
provides – well that is unjust/inequitable! Paul writes, “What shall we say
then? There is no injustice with God, is there? Far from it!” (9:14) So I am
greatly encouraged that my theological commitments get the exact same
objections that Paul’s did. Think about it. If Paul was teaching that God elects
those who choose him first and repent and believe, would anyone object to it as
being unfair/unjust? There are plenty of objections against that view, but it
being unfair/unjust isnt one of them. So, if Paul believed and was teaching in
line with Huls, the objection just would not make any sense whatsoever.
We can also
answer further that since all humanity is in sin, that all humanity deserves
wrath. So, for God to chose to save the ones that he chooses for his purposes
is not unfair/unjust. He does not owe salvation to anyone. Thus, the fact that
he saves any at all is mercy, not justice.
In addition, Calvinists
affirm that salvation comes to all – Jew, gentiles, slave, free, rich, poor, powerful,
oppressed, man, woman, young, old, etc. When the Bible speaks of
equity/uprightness it speaks of using equal scales, treating all people fairly,
etc. For the criticism to be valid against Calvinism, we would need to be saying
that God will save the rich but not the poor, or he will save men but not women.
Those kinds of inequitable scales are simply not what is affirmed by Calvinism
and thus the claim of inequity or
injustice simply reveals a lack of understanding of Biblical concepts and of
Calvinistic thought.
3. Calvinism
makes God unloving to the majority of His creation as He did not sacrifice His
Son for them, when Scripture teaches that God is infinitely loving (Exodus
34:6; Isaiah 63:9; Jeremiah 31:3; Micah 7:18; Luke 11:42; John 3:16; Romans
5:8; 8:37; 2Corinthians 13:11, 14; Galatians 5:22; Ephesians 2:4; *3:19; 5:2;
2Timothy 1:7; Titus 3:4; *1John 4:8-10, 16, 19), that He loves all men (John
3:16; Titus 3:4), and He defines love as sacrificial and unconditional (1John
3:16; Romans 5:8; see also John 3:16).
This objection
has numerous problems. First, it does not follow that because the atonement of
Christ is not effectual for any but the elect that therefore it is not
sufficient for the reprobate or that God is unloving to them. This would be
like saying that because God only provided a means of atonement for his chosen
people Israel in the Old Covenant, that the Old Covenant makes God unloving
since God is infinitely loving and yet did not provide sacrifices for the
Moabites or the Amorites or those living on the Asian Steps or in what is now Madagascar.
Does that make God unloving because he set his special redeeming covenant love
on his chosen people? Of course not.
It should also
be noted here that Calvinism does not claim that there was no general or common
grace elements accomplished on the cross. The claim is merely the atonement
accomplished in Christ’ blood was effectually won only for the elect, and not
for the reprobate. So, it is false if one thinks that a Calvinist believes that
the only thing accomplished by the cross was the effectual atonement for the
elect.
4. MANY
Calvinists claim that God actively hates the lost, when hating is a deed of the
flesh, contrary to the Spirit of God (Galatians 5:19-20) and He commands us
that rather than hating our enemies, we are to love them (Matthew 5:43-44) and
do good to them (Luke 6:27; see also Proverbs 25:21; Romans 12:20).
Simply because
some Calvinists claim it does not mean it is a feature of Calvinism. I do not
even see how this means that Calvinism is not true simply because some people
claim this. This is like the atheist who says that they cannot be a Christian
because their aunt was a Christian and she said something racist at
Thanksgiving once. I’ll take it that this suffices as an answer since this isnt
even really an objection to anything exclusively Calvinistic.
5. Calvinism
claims that God does not desire the salvation of all men, when Scripture says
God is not willing that ANY should perish (Matthew 18:14), but rather that He
desires that ALL would come to repentance (2Peter 3:9), that ALL men be saved
and for ALL to come to the knowledge of the truth (1Timothy 2:3-4).
Context
matters. As I will show, simply proof texting these verse as if they say what
Huls wants them to simply does not engage with the Calvinistic exegetical case
and does not present a clear exegetical case for the view espoused by Huls. He
needs to demonstrate his case in the face of the exegesis of Calvinist theologians
and not merely beg the question of his view.
-
MATTHEW 18:14. The text simply does not
say that God is not willing that any should perish, full stop. It is speaking
of children specifically and it is why Jesus says that “it is not the will of
your Father who is in heaven for one of these little ones to perish.” In
addition, this falls on the heels of the warning to not cause child to stumble
and sin or it would be better to have a stone tied around your neck and thrown
in the sea, and then the command to cut off your hand or gouge out your eye if
they cause you to sin. After that, he then gives the parable about a man
going to find his lost sheep and rejoicing more over the one who was found than
the 99 who stayed. Only then does he say “it is not the will of your
Father who is in heaven for one of these little ones to perish.” This is
an expression of what Calvinists call the moral or prescriptive will of God –
it is a tragic evil when children are forced or wander off into sin. It is
simply a mistake to think that this is a soteriological passage, at least not
directly. There may be indirect applications and allusions to salvation, but
that is not the primary point of the passage.
-
2 PETER 3:9. Starting in v8 we read. “8
But do not let this one fact escape your notice, beloved, that with the Lord
one day is like a thousand years, and a thousand years like one day. 9 The Lord
is not slow about His promise, as some count slowness, but is patient toward
you, not willing for any to perish, but for all to come to repentance.”
Notice
here that the issue is responding to those who are mocking and saying that
Jesus will not come because it has taken too long already. Peter is saying that
they should be patient and he says this for two reasons. First, time is not the
same for God as it is for us. So for his audience which may have already waited
a few decades (a full lifetime for many of them) they may think that it has
been a long time, but Peter reminds them that is has not and that with God a
day is like a thousand years so they may have waited 30 years but that isnt
even like a day with God. Wait until a 1000 years and that may be like one day in the providence of
God.
Second,
Peter then reminds them that God is not
slow but is patient. And who is he patient toward? “You” (ὑμᾶς). This is the
second person plural pronoun – “y’all,” This is the object of the verb – God is
not willing that any of y’all perish, but for all (πάντας) to come to
repentance. The promise that Peter has for the church is that God is patient,
not wanting any of y’all to perish but for all y’all to come to repentance. The
πάντας in the final clause is not a universal all to every person.
It
would be like me talking to a handful of my friends who are getting worried
that dinner at my house might be cancelled because I don’t seem to have started
serving it yet. They know I invited over more of our group of friends too. So I
tell them that I’m waiting to start dinner because I’m patient toward my friends,
not wanting any to miss dinner.
To supporting pronoun in the final clause modifies the object in the main
clause. It simply does not mean that I am patient toward my friends because I
want ALL PEOPLE EVERYONE IN ALL TIME to have dinner at my house. That just is
not how grammar works.
-
1 TIMOTHY 2:3-4. Here the context is that
Paul is commanding Timothy to pray for all. But while all means all, all isnt
all that all means. That is, just because πάντας is used here for “all men,”
just like in the previous example context matters. Paul commands Timothy to
prayer for all and then he mentions expressly kings and those who are in
authority. It is in this context that we find the statement referenced, “This is
good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who wants all people to
be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.”
However,
Paul follows this by saying “For there is one God, and one mediator also between
God and mankind, the man Christ Jesus, 6 who gave Himself as a ransom for all,
the testimony given at the proper time. 7 For this I was appointed as a
preacher and an apostle (I am telling the truth, I am not lying), as a teacher
of the Gentiles in faith and truth.”
Notice
that this desire for all to be saved is explained by Paul’s appeal that there
is one God of all, and one mediator, and that it is because of that fact that
Paul was appointed to the gentiles. This is an example of the fact that God was
not just the God of the Jews. Jesus is not a Jewish mediator who only brings
Jews to God – God and Jesus are for Jews and Gentiles! This is why Paul was commissioned
as a teacher to the Gentiles. This verse fits the ubiquitous New Testament
them, not that Jesus died for every single person or that God wants every
single person to be saved, but that God and Jesus and the gospel are for all
nations, tongues, tribes, and peoples. It is not just for the Jews but also for
the Gentiles.
Paul
then follows his normal motif of expanding this basic gospel consideration that
it is not just for Jews but that it is also for men and women. Throughout his
corpus, Paul regularly moves from “Jew/Gentile” to “man/woman.” And this is
precisely what he does here. In 2:8-15, Paul moves from praying for kings and
those in power to live dignified lives and mentioning Jews and Gentiles, to then
talking about the having men pray and how men and women live dignified lives.
This
verse does not demonstrate that God desires all people to be saved in the same
kind of effectual saving way as he does the elect. It is about that the gospel
is not an in-group / out-group exclusive club for the rich and powerful Jewish
men of the world. It is for literally all kinds of people!
6. Calvinism
teaches that God condemns people for His good pleasure, but God says that He
takes NO PLEASURE in the death of the wicked but would rather they repent and
LIVE (Ezekiel 33:11).
This is a
simple equivocation on the term “pleasure” based on a misunderstanding of Reformed
theology. The term חָפֵץ used in Ezekiel 33:11 is the term which means
something like to delight in. This is a kind of pleasure used in delighting in
good food or wine or a spouse. There is a secondary meaning of the term however
that does mean to desire to do something and this is typically what
the Reformed confessions and professions mean when we say that it was by God’s
good pleasure. We mean it was by the counsel of his will, his plan, his
purposes. We do not mean that he takes some kind of personal delight in
their deaths (the first sense of חָפֵץ). We do mean the second sense.
And this is in fact precisely how this term is used in the Old Testament to
describe God wanting the death of the wicked. We see in 1 Samuel 2:25b after
Eli rebuked his sons for their wickedness, the narrator tells us that Eli’s
sons “would not listen to the voice of their father, for the Lord desired
(חָפֵץ) to put them to death.” This is precisely the same term used in Ezekiel
33:11. In fact, notice here that the causal arrow goes from the consequent to
the antecedent. Why do the sons not listen? For/because
God planned to put them to death.
So, if Huls
would like us to think that Ezekiel 33:11 means that God can have no desire
whatsoever for the death of the wicked by his plan and counsel, then he
would be forced to admit a true Biblical contradiction. Thus, when Calvinists
say that it is by God’s pleasure (his will/plan) for the wicked to perish before
being able to repent and believe, we mean it precisely in the 1 Samuel 2:25
sense and not the Ezekiel 33:11 sense.
7. Calvinism
makes God ungracious to the majority of His creation, when He says that He is
the God of ALL grace (1Peter 5:10) who gives grace to all (John 1:14-17; Romans
5:15-21; Titus 2:11; Ephesians 4:7).
God is
certainly the God of all grace. But where does it follow from that that not
giving grace to every person is being ungracious? The term in the New
Testament for grace is χάρις and means grace or favor and typically refers to
something unearned, unmerited, and not required on the part of the giver. If we
follow Huls’ understand, for God to be gracious he must show grace to
all people without exception. This would then mean that giving grace would no
longer be gracious! It would just be required. This certainly cannot be the
case for God does not show the same grace to those in hell as he does to those
in heaven. Now for Huls, those in heaven may have met the condition of believing,
sure. But then if God shows all grace to all people, this would mean that he
would show even conditional grace to all people. Certainly, such universalism
is not what Huls would go for, but his argument here seems to necessitate it.
In addition, we
have the same issue as before with the universalizing of the term of the term “all”
to be “all without exception” when time and time again, the majority use of the
term is something like “all without distinction” which fits far more
comfortably with the Biblical theme of the inclusivity of the gospel.
This seems also
to run afoul of Romans 9 where we are told that God sovereignly chooses whom he
will have mercy on (the flip side of grace needed to make grace just) and that
this is done before people are born and is not based on who wants/wills or
works. Do we say that God is unmerciful because he tells us that he does not
show mercy to all? Obviously not and this would result in one affirming the “that’s
not fair/that’s unjust” objections which Paul’s interlocutor protests with in
9:14 and 21.
8. Calvinism
makes God unmerciful to the majority of His creation, when Scripture reveals
that He is abundant in mercy (Ephesians 2:4), His mercy is over ALL His works
(Psalm 145:8–9), and He desires to show mercy to ALL (Romans 11:32).
See the answer
above as this is precisely what I anticipated. If Huls wants to press passages
like Romans 11:32 to mean that God must be merciful to all in the same way or
else he is unmerciful, then he must admit to a direct contradiction of Romans 9
where Paul categorically shows that God is intentionally unmerciful to many. So
Huls here can either press his anti-Calvinistic rhetoric and affirm a Biblical
contradiction, or he can abandon his objection.
9. Calvinism
makes God uncompassionate to the majority of His creation, when God says that
He is compassionate (Deuteronomy 4:31), and His compassion never fails
(Lamentations 3:22, 32).
Here Huls seems
to merely be on a copy and paste binge, replacing grace for mercy for
compassion. Must I go through the litany of examples where God is demonstrably and
expressly not compassionate to persons? Was he compassionate during the
flood? Was he compassionate to Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities on the plain?
Was he compassionate to Pharaoh? What about the innocent first born of the Egyptians
– was he compassionate to them? Was he compassionate when he placed various
nations under חָרַם (holy war/the ban) to wipe out all their men, women,
children, pregnant women, nursing infants, etc.? Was he compassionate to the
Israelites when he brought in Assyria and Babylon to slaughter, rape, pillage, plunder,
and carry them off into exile? To pretend as if God is not savingly
compassionate to all persons equally somehow makes God uncompassionate is to
simply reveal one’s complete and utter lack of reading and reflection on Biblical
passages and to focus on such a myopic, romanticized concept of YHWH as being a
butterfly rather than a holy hurricane. God’s wrath and justice and holiness simply
do not stand in opposition to his compassion. God showed compassion to Noah and
his family but not to the other inhabitants of the land. Does that make him
uncompassionate? According to Huls romanticized concept of God, maybe it does.
But that is not the holy God of the Bible. That is not YHWH. Does Paul tell us expressly
in Romans 9 (citing from Ex. 33:19) that God will have compassion on whom he
has compassion, and this is contrasted with those whom he hardens (i.e.
does not show compassion to) in v16-19.
10. Calvinism
makes God unjust for condemning people to hell for something they have no
control over, when God is a God of justice (Isaiah 30:18).
This objection
begs the question that it would be unjust for God to condemn people to hell for
something that they “have no control over”. Notice that this is exactly
the objection that Paul anticipates from his interlocutor in Romans 9. After
saying that God chose Isaac and not Ishmael and that he chose Jacob and not
Esau, and that this was done completely out of their control (see again
my answer to objection #2), the objection comes “What shall we say then?
There is no injustice with God, is there?” (9:14). To which Paul replies, “Far
from it!” And this is clearly an example of mercy and hardening in judgement
since he expressly applies this divine prerogative to choose apart from human
control to mercy and hardening. “So then He has mercy on whom He desires, and
He hardens whom He desires.” This follows with a similar objection,
“You will say to me then, “Why
does He still find fault? For who has resisted His will?”
Notice again
Huls’ voice in this objection to Pauline theology. How is it fair for God to
find us at fault (i.e. condemn) when people cannot resist his will (have no
control)? Here I would much rather stick with Paul and the Biblical view of God
as the sovereign rather than try to prop up humans as a sovereign ones and have
the objections to Paul come from my lips. I would rather bend the knew to Paul
than shake my fist at the heavens, quoting Invictus, and demanding God
respect my autonomy and captainship of my own soul.