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Thursday, June 6, 2013

“Slavery” In the Bible – Part 1: History and Culture



 

Skeptics will often criticize Christians for “cherry picking” passages from the Bible to obey that they like while ignoring the difficult passages or morally questionable one. “Why do you accept the passages that condemn homosexuality but still eat pork?” In this article series I will not be addressing that claim directly (though I have elsewhere), but will be showing that to a large degree other criticisms of the Bible made by atheists frequently rely on their own cherry picking and a heavy handed treatment of Biblical passages or Ancient Near Eastern (ANE) history and often a total ignorance of original languages. In particular I will be responding to the oft declared critique that the Bible condones slavery. 
            Before I start I should note that the purpose of this series is not to endorse or even defend some version of the doctrine of inerrancy. I will not be attempting to argue that the Jews (as a unified people) were oppressed in Egypt for 400 years, were miraculously spared by the hand of God, brought out of Egypt in a mass exodus, received the Torah from the hand of God at Sinai or any other such events. I am not going to be arguing for a earlier or later date for the composition of the texts or even that the texts have been handed down reliably to us through history. While I think that all of these can be reasonably argued for and defended (and again have done so elsewhere) the purpose of this article is merely to elucidate what it is that the Biblical authors, in their historical contexts, were and were not commending or condoning within the Biblical texts as we have them today. It is because I know that many objections will come in this kind of form of diversion that I wanted to state from the outset that my intention is not to argue for or support any of these kinds of positions. 
            We will begin by exploring the ANE slave cultures, including that of Israel, as compared the New World African slavery and then move into handling the specific casuistic laws in the Old Testament regarding the legal restraints on slavery, slaves, and masters. Due to the fact that this kind of atheistic objection will often quickly migrate to blaming New World Slavery on Christianity and the Bible, I will end by showing that had the West actually followed the Law found in the Old Testament they would have categorically been opposed to the kind of slavery we saw in the African slave trade. 
            In one sense the term “slave” is a correct term to describe what we observe in the Old Testament. A slave, generally, can be considered a person who is subject to another without the freedom to leave on one’s own accord. In this very general sense the Old Testament does condone slavery. What this exactly looks like and entails, we will explore shortly, but for now let me affirm that in the general sense this is true. The problem however is that we very rarely mean such an innocuous meaning when we use the term “slave/slavery.” This is because this general meaning of the word is more aptly described by the term servitude or bond servant whereas, because of the history in the West of antebellum or New World African slavery the term connotes something much more ruthless. When, as late modern Westerners, we hear “slavery” the images that come to our mind are those of Roots, Django, and Uncle Tom’s Cabin, where Harriot Beecher Stowe states, “The legal power of the master amounts to an absolute despotism of body and soul,” and “there is no protection of the slave’s life.” Yet the question must be asked, are these adequate parallels to what we find in the Bible? And even if they are too extreme, isn’t any kind of slavery, no matter how mundane, still immoral? Is it not a moral fact that no human has the right to own another human as a piece or property?[i] 
            There is actually a somewhat apt parallel in the Colonial west to what we find in Old Testament Israel but it is not the African Slave trade. The “slavery” that we find in the Bible is much more in line with indentured servitude of colonists unable to pay their way to the colonies. In order for pay fare, a hopeful colonist would attach themselves to a wealthy business owner or family to work for them to repay the debt of the fare. They would work in their households or in their businesses as apprentices (the equivalent of modern Trade Schools) until their debt was paid and then they were free to go. It is estimated that nearly one half to two thirds of all colonists arrived as indentured servants in some capacity. There were, no doubt, abuses of this system with dishonest businessmen making the ability to pay off the debt nearly impossible, but that itself is not an indictment on the system itself but rather the ability to regulate the system. As we will see this is a much more adequate parallel to “slavery” in the Old Testament, which should be considered more inline with debt servitude than with slavery. This is because, as we will see, the overwhelming majority of the texts relating to slavery were either directly or indirectly related to paying off some kind of debt. 
            In the Old Testament the term commonly translated as “master” is ’adon (אדנ). Translating this as “master” is however far too strong a rendition of it in many places. It is used to refer to the relationship of a father over his son, a husband over his wife, a ruler over his kingdom, an owner of his land, a manager over his hired employees, and a master over her his servants. To treat this as if it categorically refers to the a kind of repressive despotism as described by Stowe is shallow indeed. We see this even further when we look at the term commonly translated as “slave” in the Old Testament, ‘bed (עבד). This term can refer to a slave, but it can refer to a son, a daughter, a spouse, a hired employee, a prophet/priest, a king, and to Israel itself. The reference seems to be to one who serves in some capacity and not to someone who is completely owned against their will to the cruel treatment of another. Paul Copan points out that even when the Bible uses terms like “buy,” “sell” or “acquire” it still does not refer to a person being, body and soul, property of their “master.” In fact we still use this kind of language today. Think of a professional athlete who is bought under contract by the “owners” of the team, who can be traded at any time and who cannot freely violate their contract without heavy personal and financial cost to themselves. 
            Now let us move on to looking at the role that debt servitude played in ancient Israel. This is pivotal to grasp before understanding the meaning and purpose behind specific casuistic laws regarding the rights of debt servants and their owners found elsewhere in the law. 
            In ancient times there were no banks. There were no debt consolidation firms, no bankruptcy laws, no lines of credit, no job hunters for new careers, no diversification of labor. When a person owed another person, they settled directly with that individual. This was also a communal society. This meant that debt did not come to individuals – it came to whole families. If the father made poor business decisions, the entire family suffered. They did not each have their own social security number with their own credit history. When a father gained serious indebtedness he could either let his family lose their land and starve, or give the only collateral he had left at his disposal – himself and his family. As strange as it might sound, in many ways debt servanthood was a protection from starvation for many in the ancient world. Unlike New World slavery, debt servants were not kid napped or forced to serve against their will. They would voluntarily offer themselves and their families as collateral against their debt – “one of your countrymen becomes poor and sells himself” (Lev. 25:47). If they failed to pay their debt they would then go in service to the person who they owed. In return they would be able to work off their debt. This would frequently entail them being able to stay living in their own land, their own homes, work their own crops, etc. simply in service now to the owner rather than unto themselves. There was also the option that his kin could ransom/redeem him (i.e. pay off his debt) and thus fulfill the debt requirements, or else he would be required to work a maximum of 6 years until the Sabbath year when debts were to be cancelled (although his land would frequently stay mortgaged until the year of Jubilee – a maximum of 49 years if his family could not redeem it sooner). 
            This reveals several things important to understanding slavery in ancient Israel. Firstly is that it was voluntary. The debtor voluntarily chose to sell himself into slavery rather than allow himself and his family to starve and perish. Secondly, it was not into perpetuity. We will explore more of these restraints later when we look at the specific laws regarding debt servanthood in the Old Testament, for now let me merely point out that a person was never intended to be a servant for life but rather for a maximum period of six years. In fact we see that many of the indictments that God levied against Israel later in its history are precisely that it failed to practice these Sabbath years (years of absolving debt and thus servitude). A primary example is found in Jeremiah 34:8-22 where Judah is condemned for failing to free their slaves after the six years were up. In vv14-16 God states,



14 ‘Every seventh year each of you must free any fellow Hebrews who have sold themselves to you. After they have served you six years, you must let them go free.’ Your ancestors, however, did not listen to me or pay attention to me. 15 Recently you repented and did what is right in my sight: Each of you proclaimed freedom to your own people. You even made a covenant before me in the house that bears my Name. 16 But now you have turned around and profaned my name; each of you has taken back the male and female slaves you had set free to go where they wished. You have forced them to become your slaves again.

God then goes on to state that their refusal to keep the law regarding the freeing of debt servants is the primary reason for the future exile of the people into Babylon. As we will see, what we find more often than not is that God’s law is much more concerned with the freeing of servants than the acquisition of them. This is because, as we will see, is that God’s expressed will for Israel was that “there need be no poor people among you, for in the land the Lord your God is giving you to possess as your inheritance, he will richly bless you, if only you fully obey the Lord your God and are careful to follow all these commands I am giving you today” (Deut. 15:4-5). If servanthood in Israel was primarily the result of poverty, but God’s desire and law were geared to eradicate poverty in Israel, then it is quite clear that God’s goal was also eradicate servanthood in Israel. So if this was God’s intention, then why not simply outlaw it like he does wearing clothes that blended two fabrics or the eating of pork? 
            When we compare servanthood in Ancient Israel with that of slavery in other ANE cultures we see four distinct differences. Firstly, in Israel, contrary to what skeptics assert (and I will show this when we get to the specific laws) servants were not chattel. That is, they were not rightless property at the disposal of the master to do with as he desires – including to treat harshly and brutishly. Secondly, the rights of the owner over the servant were not absolute in Israel. They did not have the right over “body and soul” as Stowe described New World masters and which was true in all other ANE societies. Thirdly, the servant in Israel kept his name, family, and social identity. This was not the case in other ANE nations and in New World slavery where the slave often has his name changed, was separated from their family, and lost all social status or identity. Finally, we see that the allowance of debt servanthood in Israel was for the protection of the poor. We will discuss the difference of approving and allowance shortly, but for this point we can see that this was not only used to allow families to pay off debt in a relatively short period of time (6 years maximum as opposed to lifelong slavery) but also that God set in place laws that not only required the freeing of servants during the Sabbath years, but also the provision for the poor to keep them from becoming indebted and for servants being freed. The Mosaic legislation had certain laws in place that required the people to do what they could to keep the poor from falling into starvation or total indebtedness. One such law is found in Lev. 19:9-10, 23:22 and Deut24:20-21 where Israelites were to not harvest for themselves from the corners of their fields so that the poor could glean them for themselves. That is, it required that the edges of a person’s farm/vineyard were to be cultivated but left unharvested so that the poor could come and harvest it for themselves! In addition to this Israelites were commanded to lend to their fellow Israelites freely, that is, without charging any interest (Ex. 22:25; Lev. 25:36-37) and that if the poor could not afford the more expensive sacrifices of bulls and goats and lambs, they were permitted to sacrifice much less costly sacrifices such as doves (Lev 5:7, 11). To go even further, when a servant was finally freed (either after paying off their debt or because a Sabbath year had arrived) the owner was not simply to set them free, but they were to generously provide for them without a “grudging heart” (Deut. 15:10). This was simply unheard of in the ANE and in the antebellum south. While some ANE cultures did have examples of mass debt cancellation, it was extremely sporadic and was usually only at times when a new ruler came to power. In addition the debt that was cancelled was the debt to the king and not all debt of all servants. 
            At this point I would like to urge you to go and read Deuteronomy 15:1-18 that is the Old Testament enunciation of the desire of God to eradicate poverty, and thus debt servanthood in all of Israel. However, because we live in the real world, and people are, let us say, less than perfect, there would also assuredly be poverty, even though God had set up clear laws toward its abolition. Because of this, the Mosaic law sets out laws, not to endorse or idealize servanthood, but to control and regulate it to minimize and humanize it and to set the precedent that it was less than God’s ideal. In fact we see an example of this in Jesus’ comments on divorce in the New Testament. In Matthew 19:8 Jesus says that God allowed divorce in the Old Testament, not to idealize it or endorse it, but “because of your hardness of heart.” That is, that God created a divorce law, not because He endorsed divorce and the destruction of the family unit, but because he knew human nature and knew that even if outlawed it, due to social pressures people would do it anyway and so he wanted to set up certain protections for the women (the certificate of divorce in the Old Testament maintained the woman’s social status and allowed her to return to her home without being disgraced as shameful or sinful). So too with the laws regarding servanthood in the Mosaic Law, God established laws that would protect those involved and set up other mitigating statutes that would diminish the volume of debtors in the land. The faithful Jew would see in the law that God cared for the poor and the servant and thus so should they. 
            This actually has roots all the way back in Genesis 1 where all humanity was created in the image of God. In all other ANE cultures it was only the monarch that was the divine image bearer. In these cultures it would be unheard of for a slave to be considered a bearer of the image of God but that is precisely what we find in Israel – that all people, from the kings to the servants, were image bearers. When David acted to kill Uriah to steal his wife, he was not given a free pass as the king. He was judged. No king was above the law. No servant was rightsless. We see a stunning admission of this in Job 31:13-15:

13 “If I have denied justice to any of my servants,
    whether male or female,
    when they had a grievance against me,
14 what will I do when God confronts me?
    What will I answer when called to account?
15 Did not he who made me in the womb make them?
    Did not the same one form us both within our mothers?

This expressly states that God has made both the rich and the poor, the owner and the servant, and that God will side with the servant if the owner has treated him unjustly. He knows that if he has denied justice to his servants or if he had treated them in such a way that they had a valid grievance against him, that God would be on their side. God would be their advocate and uphold their rights. This was a sentiment entirely lacking in every other ANE culture and definitely missing in the New World African slave trade. 
            In the next article in this series we will begin to explore the specific passages in the Mosaic law dealing with servanthood and explore exactly what it was like to be a servant in Israel and if the laws are the means of violence and oppression that the critics make them out to be.

Part 2 - http://freedthinkerpodcast.blogspot.com/2013/06/slavery-in-bible-part-2-casuistic-laws.html


[i] Here I would like to simply note in passing the numerous problems of basing an objection to theism based on objective moral facts. The skeptic, basing his views on his naturalistic worldview, is on dubious ground to say the least on this point.

Thursday, May 9, 2013

On "Cherry Picking"



I would like to give some basic thoughts on I respond to an oft posed atheistic objection: Do I eat shellfish? Absolutely. Do I wear clothes of mixed cloth? I am right now.  Well then, according to the atheist, I must be “cherry picking” from the Bible the verses that I want to believe and the ones I don’t, especially those from the Old Testament Mosaic Law. This is another very common mistake that many lay skeptics make. Ironically this was not a big complaint from atheists in generations past because they were familiar with the Christian theology of the New Covenant. Basic theology and hermeneutics was commonly part of primary education. However, many modern Atheists just do not take the time to actually familiarize themselves with Christian theology and the history of interpretation before they begin blindly flailing about with their objections, hoping that something, anything, will stick.

The reason why Christians do not adhere to these kinds of laws from the Old Covenant has literally nothing to do with some kind of textual cherry picking. This again is a long standing theological distinction made based on the New Testament and Covenant Theology. Again, you do not have to believe that the Bible is TRUE on this, but you can at least attempt to understand what it says and means. Christians do not have just the Old Testament. We also have the NT and read the entire book as being a continuous whole (diverse as it may be). Anyone who has read Romans, Galatians, Ephesians, and Hebrews will know immediately that the answer to why we do not follow the OT Levitical law in detail is theological. I’ll try to keep this as brief as I can but such atheists are basically asking a question that involves the relationship between the Mosaic Covenant with the Nation of Israel and the New Covenant with a redeemed people (not a geo political nation). I’m gonna do this in simple list format to make it more brief and easy to respond to specific points if you so choose.

1.      Christians have, since the earliest writers (we see it in the 4 NT books I listed above as well as other places like Acts 15) seen a distinction between 3 different KINDS of OT Laws: Civil/magisterial laws (taxation, penal code, kingship, etc.), ceremonial/priestly laws (sacrifices, clean/unclean, holiness codes, structures of worship, etc.) and moral/ethical laws (decalogue/10 commandments, etc.) Again, this distinction did not arise as a response to the challenge of “Cherry picking” but has been a long standing theological distinction since Paul and even Jesus. We will see in the next few points why this distinction is important to keep in mind.

2.      In addition to the distinction of the KINDS of laws in the OT, the Bible also has a strong emphasis on the spirit of the law, that is, that even behind the civil and ceremonial law there is an ethical principle operating. So for example, in Deut 22:8 we find this law:

"When you build a new house, you shall make a parapet for your roof, so that you will not bring bloodguilt on your house if anyone falls from it.”

      Now, is the intent of this law that it is morally good in and of itself just to have a parapet (a small fence) around one’s roof? No. The ethic behind this is clearly that we are responsible to make sure that our properties are safe and that if we do not adequately build or maintain our properties then we are liable when someone gets hurt on our property due to our neglect. It is basically an early version of building safety codes.

3.      The next concept is that many of these laws are used as something like “life illustrations.” This is a hard concept for modern hearers to grasp because we don’t really have laws like this anymore. These laws are meant to be kept to remind the Jews of their need to be holy and not give in to other religions or immoral practices. So when they only wore unmixed clothing they were to be reminded of their need to not mix their lifestyles with the lifestyles of the Canaanites for example. So some laws are in place as life illustrations and reminders to the Jews of their history and their standing as a distinct and hopefully holy people. When they went into other lands and had to be particular about the food or the cloth that they bought at market, it would be a reminder to them and possible even a way to share God with other people.

4.      The Bible is structured around the ANE legal practice of covenants: Adamic Covenant, Noahic Covenant, Abrahamic Covenant, Mosaic Covenant, Davidic Covenant and the New Covenant. Now what is a covenant? It is like a treaty, or an agreement between two or more people. In the ancient world it was often structured around the following format (or some close variation thereof):

a.       Preamble – the initiating party involved says who they are and what they have done.
b.      What the agreement is – the obligations of each party.
c.       The blessings and consequences for keeping/breaking the covenant.

Now covenants can be either conditional or unconditional. A conditional covenant basically says that the covenant is only valid so long as the parties are faithful to their respective obligations. If they are faithful then the blessings from C are received. If they break it then the consequences of C are received and the covenant ends.

An unconditional covenant is long standing regardless of the faithfulness of the 2nd party. It is a unilateral promise of the initiating party to the receptive party. This means that regardless of the faithfulness of the receptive party the initiating party would continue to give the blessing. Again we will see why this concept is important to keep in mind.

Now to tie those four points together we can begin by looking at a common formulation of Jesus: “You have heard X, but I tell you Y.” This is a common formulation in the sermons of Jesus. Jesus seems to be drawing on the fact that there are moral and ethical underpinnings of each law and that our moral obligations are to THOSE ethical underpinnings (which are often HARDER to keep than the original law even if they are less “culturally” derived.)

We also see that the Civil and Ceremonial laws were given as part of the conditional covenant of the Mosaic covenant specifically for the regulation of the theocratic state of the Nation of Israel. When Israel fails to uphold its faithfulness to the covenant, they undergo the consequences stated at the end of the covenant (found in Deuteronomy). However, we then find the New Covenant beginning to form in Jeremiah 31 (though we see hints of it as early as Genesis 3) which is an unconditional covenant meant to overcome the faithlessness of Israel. Yet in order to make this New Covenant unconditional, God does away with the obligation of the civil and ceremonial obligations of geo-political Israel by extending the blessings to all people. No longer does a person have to become a national Jew in order to be a citizen of God’s kingdom but they still must become “clean” to enter. Yet since we cannot be sinless on our own (since sin is the violation of the moral law – of which we are all guilty of) we must still be redeemed by an act of grace. This is what Jesus does – he is the culmination of the law – the perfect prophet, priest and king. The one who wraps up all the loose ends and fulfills obligations and yet takes the Mosaic curses due to us on himself. But what does this mean for non-Jews and Jewish Christians? We see this very discussion happening in Acts 15 with the so called Jerusalem counsel. We see in Acts 15 that the early church got together to discuss whether or not a gentile must first become a Jew before they became a Christian – i.e. must they follow all the OT law to become a Christian? This was the conclusion that they came to:

28 It seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us not to burden you with anything beyond the following requirements: 29 You are to abstain from food sacrificed to idols, from blood, from the meat of strangled animals and from sexual immorality. You will do well to avoid these things.

Notice that it was based on theological reasons of what the gospel is, not some desire to avoid the accusation of cherry picking that they came to the conclusion that Gentiles were not required to keep the laws of Geo-political Israel. We even see Paul say this in Galatians 2:

14 When I saw that they were not acting in line with the truth of the gospel, I said to Cephas in front of them all, “You are a Jew, yet you live like a Gentile and not like a Jew. How is it, then, that you force Gentiles to follow Jewish customs?

Paul here condemns Peter (Cephas) for forcing gentiles to adhere to the OT ceremonial laws – he says that it is actually contrary to the gospel to force Christians to live by the OT civil and ceremonial laws.

Now, I know this has been somewhat long, but the point is that when an atheist wants to say that Christians are just “cherry picking” when they do not live according to OT law it shows that they are just not familiar with NT theology and the long history of covenantal theology.

I’m also not saying that one cannot read the Bible for themselves. I am simply saying that in order to understand what an ANE author MEANS takes some study precisely because it is so foreign to us. I like to use the example of Dante. If you read Dante without a critical edition with all the footnotes it is almost impossible to appreciate the meaning of most of the text. Sure you might be able to come up with the overall theme and narrative flow of the book, but almost every stanza is chalk full of allusions and historically derived images and themes.

So for example, in Canto I Dante writes:

“of that sad Italy for which Nisus died
And Turnus, and Euryalus, and the maid Camilla
He shall hunt her through every nation of sick pride.

One would NEVER be able to say that they have understood what that stanza meant if you do not study the history of it. So why do we think that the Bible which is written in a completely different time, on a different continent, in a different culture in every possible way, in a dead language, from a different worldview would not take study to even understand what the author meant?

So again, all of this does not mean one cannot read it on their own, but it does mean that in order to interpret what the text MEANS, it will often take quite a bit of study into the backgrounds and contexts of the texts we are dealing with.

Saturday, May 4, 2013

“Censorship is to art as lynching is to justice.” – Henry Louis Gates



On a post about morality on atheist apologist David McAfee’s group page, I was in a discussion with David’s girlfriend and another gentleman and was pointing out the difference between ontology and epistemology (that iron rods remain solid because of what iron IS and not due to what we believe/know about it or how we come to that belief/knowlege).

This was his GF response:

“"Why will the iron stay solid?" Of course it will, know why? Because we've tested it.”

Initially I gave her the benefit of the doubt that she merely phrased it wrong and that she was still simply confusing ontology with epistemology – that she was just trying to say how we know that an iron bar would remain solid. After I tried to get her to see that the iron remains solid because of what iron IS and not BECAUSE we’ve tested it (that is that the tests are how we may know or confirm that iron will remain solid but do not cause it), she swung into a rage, refused to answer any questions and started calling me:

1. a dishonest f*ck.
2. a lonely old man
3. unmarried, because I am so pathetic no one would ever marry me.
4. unhappy at a dead end job
5. anti-science
6. uneducated and ignorant of anything
7. unable to use “big boy” evidence

I responded by apologizing if I had said something to offend her, and continued to try and keep the conversation civil and honest and simply asked for more clarifications about her answer and if she really did think that it was the testing that caused the metal’s solidity. Her hostility simply escalated.

After this, NJ Bruzzese (naturalist, agnostic/functional-atheist host of The Skeptics Testament) then joined in and also tried to help her see that this distinction between ontology and epistemology and that this is not a point of contention for any philosophers and is not something that really is distinctively Christian or theistic. We both tried to point out to her that this is really basic philosophical categories and nothing to get bent out of shape about. Another atheist, Brandon Christen, also read the thread and noticed the nature of David’s girlfriends comments – he would later respond to the controversy.

The thread was suddenly, and without warning, deleted. NJ accidentally posted his comment on the main page not knowing the thread was deleted and then at that point, NJ, myself and the other atheistic member of that group continued the conversation very openly and honestly and with great civility. David McAfee suddenly posted that he would like this new thread to end and promptly deleted the post and then BANNED NJ and myself from the group.

Following this Brandon then commented on the group’s page that he was surprised, and somewhat disappointed, that a group that was supposedly dedicated to free thought and reasonable dialogue, would not only delete multiple threads challenging the views of the group’s administrator and his GF – and not even religious one’s but basic philosophical understanding of what ontology and epistemology are…) would be censored and banned, whereas  the commenters who routinely mock and ridicule and launch personal attacks against people do not even get so much as a slap on the wrist. Brandon was told by David McAfee that he could go elsewhere and was banned from the group as well.

For those who where in any doubt that there are anti-theistic fundamentalists, this is evidence for you. He censored a theist, an agnostic and an atheist, deleted multiple threads and banned us from his group after allowing his followers to resort to nothing but ad hominems, personal attacks, and derogatory rhetoric. Why? Because we pointed out that there is a difference between ontology and epistemology that might (MIGHT) challenge one of his views.

Nothing like censorship to show one is a “free thinker”.